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Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Part 1 Exam Sample Questions (Q150-Q155):

NEW QUESTION # 150
A surgical clinic would like to respond to the Truth and Reconciliation Commission of Canada: Calls to Action report. The clinic has implemented a mandatory cultural safety course for all employees and ongoing faculty development that includes teachings from Elders and Knowledge Keepers and teaching sessions about harm reduction, trauma-informed care, and antiracism. Which one of the following steps would further the clinic's goal of responding to this report?

A. Provide clinic information in the languages spoken by the community.
B. Include trauma disclosure on the clinic's intake form.
C. Display the cultural safety certificate in the waiting room.
D. Evaluate how the staff enjoyed the teaching session.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Providing information in the patient's own language is a concrete way to improve access, cultural safety, and communication - key recommendations in the Truth and Reconciliation Commission's Calls to Action. It moves beyond symbolic gestures and supports equitable care.
Toronto Notes 2023 - ELOM, "Indigenous Health and Cultural Safety" Section:
"Cultural safety includes removing language barriers, engaging with Elders, and using patient-centered practices that respect Indigenous values. Communication in the patient's first language improves trust and outcomes." MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > 99-2: Cultural Safety and Health Equity):
"Candidates must apply the principles of culturally safe care including removing barriers to access and effective communication, as highlighted in the Truth and Reconciliation Commission's Calls to Action." Evaluating session enjoyment (A) is not impactful. Certificates (C) are symbolic. Intake questions about trauma (D) must be done with appropriate context and safety - not as a formality.

NEW QUESTION # 151
A 37-year-old woman diagnosed with schizophrenia comes to her family physician because she has been choking on her food lately. She has a history of mild spasmodic dysphonia. She was recently started on haloperidol for auditory hallucinations. Which one of the following is the best short-term management?

A. Change the haloperidol to quetiapine
B. Start lorazepam
C. Provide reassurance
D. Begin dantrolene
E. Arrange for an urgent laryngoscopy

Answer: A

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
This patient is likely experiencing extrapyramidal symptoms (dysphagia/dystonia) due to haloperidol.
Switching to an atypical antipsychotic (like quetiapine), which has a lower risk of EPS, is appropriate.
Dysphagia in the context of antipsychotic use requires prompt medication review.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry, "Antipsychotics and Extrapyramidal Effects":
"Dysphagia can be a sign of extrapyramidal side effects. Consider switching to an atypical antipsychotic with lower EPS risk." MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 71-5: Antipsychotic Adverse Effects):
"Candidates must recognize and manage EPS, including drug-induced dysphagia." Dantrolene (C) is for neuroleptic malignant syndrome, not isolated dysphagia. Laryngoscopy (B) may be useful later but not first-line. Reassurance (D) is unsafe. Lorazepam (E) may help in dystonia but doesn't address the root cause.

NEW QUESTION # 152
A 36-year-old woman presents to the office with a 2-month history of multiple asymptomatic bumps on her vulva. She is not currently sexually active but has had 2 male sexual partners in the past, with the most recent relationship ending 1 year ago. On examination, she appears to have genital warts. She has not received the human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine and is not interested in any treatment that is not absolutely necessary.
Which of the following is the best next step?

A. HPV vaccine.
B. Cryotherapy.
C. Papanicolaou test.
D. Contact tracing.
E. Excisional biopsy.

Answer: A

Explanation:
The patient has clinical evidence of genital warts (condyloma acuminata), which are caused by low-risk HPV types. Even though she is not currently sexually active and has visible warts, HPV vaccination is still beneficial for protection against other oncogenic strains (especially types 16 and 18). Vaccination is safe and recommended up to age 45.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Gynecology, "STIs and HPV":
"Vaccination is recommended up to age 45, regardless of prior exposure or visible warts. It may prevent reinfection with or acquisition of high-risk HPV strains." MCCQE1 Objectives (Gynecology > 83-3: STIs and HPV):
"Candidates must counsel patients appropriately on prevention, including the role of HPV vaccination, even after exposure or infection." Pap testing (B) is routine screening, not management of visible warts. Cryotherapy (D) is optional if the patient desires removal, but she declined treatment. Biopsy (A) is reserved for atypical lesions. Contact tracing (E) is not typically required for HPV warts.

NEW QUESTION # 153
A 34-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, aborta 0, presents at 38 weeks' gestation. She is in early labor with ruptured membranes. Her previous pregnancy was complicated by fever during labor. Which one of the following would increase the risk of fever recurrence?

A. Precipitous labor
B. Advanced maternal age
C. Multiparity
D. Epidural analgesia

Answer: D

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
Epidural analgesia is associated with increased maternal intrapartum fever due to non-infectious(neurogenic) thermoregulation impairment. This is a well-known phenomenon in laboring women.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Obstetrics / Anesthesia:
"Epidural analgesia increases risk of intrapartum fever by up to 20% via non-infectious mechanisms." MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics > 80-5: Intrapartum Care):
"Candidates must recognize risk factors for intrapartum complications, including effects of epidural use." Multiparity (A), precipitous labor (B), and maternal age (C) are not established risk factors for intrapartum fever.

NEW QUESTION # 154
A 26-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, presents with a positive pregnancy test. Her previous pregnancy was associated with preeclampsia, and she delivered a 1000 g boy at 34 weeks' gestation. Her blood pressure is 130
/86 mm Hg. Which one of the following is the best recommendation for this pregnancy?

A. Genetic assessment and counseling.
B. Accurate dating by ultrasound.
C. Amniocentesis for karyotyping.
D. Complete bed rest starting at 20 weeks' gestation.
E. Prophylactic labetalol.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Accurate dating is critical in pregnancies at high risk for preeclampsia and intrauterine growthrestriction. First- trimester ultrasound is used to establish gestational age, which guides monitoring and interventions.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Obstetrics, High-Risk Pregnancy:
"In women with a history of preeclampsia, early and accurate dating allows for appropriate fetal surveillance and timely delivery." MCCQE1 Objectives - Obstetrics > Prenatal Care:
"Candidates should recognize the importance of accurate pregnancy dating in high-risk pregnancies." Prophylactic labetalol (E) is not indicated in normotensive patients. Genetic testing (A, B) is not appropriate unless additional risk factors are present. Bed rest (D) is not evidence-based for preeclampsia prevention.

NEW QUESTION # 155
......

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